by Neil Richey The scenario is this—a man and a woman marry (both having never been married before). Neither is a Christian. After several years, the same man and woman decide to divorce (fornication is not the cause). They have clearly violated Matthew 5:32. Now suppose that the man marries again, and he is now out of ignorance living in adultery (cf. Matt 19:9). While in this relationship he is taught how to become a Christian. He is therefore baptized for the forgiveness of sins (Acts 2:38). Question, did his baptism sanctify (make right) his...