The Bible says, “for we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin” (Hebrews 4:15). Again the Bible says, “For even hereunto were ye called: because Christ also suffered for us, leaving us an example, that ye should follow in this steps: Who did no sin neither was guile found in him mouth: Who, when he was reviled, reviled not again; when he suffered, he threatened not; but committed himself to him that judgeth righteously” (1 Peter 2:21-23). The Bible plainly states that Jesus did not sin.
When Jesus was tempted by the devil after He was baptized we find these words which are very important, “And when the devil had ended all the temptation, he departed from him for a season” (Luke 4:13). Some may have the idea that Jesus was only tempted this one time. Some may have the idea that Jesus was above being tempted by the devil at other times or even every day such as we are. Notice from the passage quoted that “he (that is the devil) departed him for a season.” The devil left Him (that is Jesus) alone for a short time. James promises us the same thing, ‘Submit yourselves therefore to God. Resist the devil, and he will flee from you. Draw nigh to God, and he will draw nigh to you. Cleanse your hands, ye sinners; and purify your hearts, ye double minded” (James 4:7-8). The Bible plainly states that the devil will flee from us, but it is not forever! Consider what Peter said, “Be sober, be vigilant; because your adversary the devil, as a roaring lion, walketh about, seeking whom he may devour: Whom resist steadfast in the faith, knowing that the same afflictions are accomplished in your brethren that are in the world” (1 Peter 5:8-9). It does not make Jesus a sinner because He was tempted! Some have stated that temptation is the same as sin, but it is not. Jesus did not sin yet He was tempted to sin. There is a vast difference in these two ideas. Please keep in your minds that Jesus did not sin.
Someone might ask the question, “Why was Jesus baptized?” If baptism is for the remission of sins, why was Jesus baptized if He had no sins? We all agree that Jesus had no sins for the Bible clearly and plainly teaches that He has no sin. Let us go to where it is recorded that Jesus was baptized. “Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfill all righteousness. Then he suffered him” (Matthew 3:13-15). It clearly states the reason Jesus was baptized, and it was not for the remission of sins. Jesus was baptized “to fulfill all righteousness.” The Psalmist said long ago, “Thy testimonies that thou hast commanded are righteous and very faithful” (Psalm 119:138). Jesus was fulfilling the Word of God. He was doing what God commanded, and the commands of God are righteous. So Jesus was not a sinner, but was being baptized to do the commands of God. Otherwise He would have sinned. He was no sinner therefore He was doing the Will of God.
Why is there the question, “was Jesus sinless” if the Bible plainly states that Jesus did not sin? Many in their reason to justify a belief, place Jesus in a state where He becomes a sinner. In this we must always be careful. We can never hold a belief, or a theory that would place the Bible in error. The Bible plainly states that Jesus did not sin!
Since it is the case, that Jesus was sinless; would Jesus violate any Old Testament passage of scriptures? He could not violate any Old Testament passage still remain sinless. He is the only one who kept the Law perfectly. We know this because He was sinless.
Would Jesus ask anyone else to violate any Old Testament passage? It was wrong to offer up any unclean animal upon the altar as a sacrifice to God. Would Jesus tell someone to go and offer a pig on the altar as a sacrifice to God? Most certainly not! Jesus would have taught error and then would not be sinless. We know He was sinless therefore we know that He did not tell anyone to offer a pig as a sacrifice to God.
Would Jesus ask anyone who was not a priest to offer up sacrifices? No, He would not and did not. Understand something also, while on earth Jesus could not go into the Holy Place or the Most Holy Place. Jesus could not offer up a sacrifice without a priest being present. Jesus was from the wrong tribe. Jesus is from the tribe of Judah. The priestly tribe was Levi. This is why the book of Hebrews is so important. It makes the case that Jesus is a High Priest after the order of Melchisedec. Notice what we find in Hebrews, “If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron? For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the Law. For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar. For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood… For he testifeth, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec” (Hebrews 7:11-15, 17). [Please read further and study in its’ totally Hebrews chapter 7]
Since it is clearly the case that Jesus did not sin; that He violated no Old Testament passage, let us not think that we can concoct a theory or a belief that contradicts these plain passages of scriptures. Sometimes in our eagerness we set plain passages aside. We cannot do this. We must go from what we know; these passages are plain. Let us not be guilty of setting any of these passages aside.
Love, Keith
